Mathematics Question of the Day
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🔥 Today’s Question
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Question RA-001
Detailed Solution
Since $(a_n)$ converges to some $L\in\mathbb R$, for $\varepsilon=1$ there exists $N$ such that $|a_n-L|<1$ for all $n\ge N$. Hence $|a_n|\le |L|+1$ for all $n\ge N$. The finitely many terms $a_1,\ldots,a_{N-1}$ are also bounded. Therefore $(a_n)$ is bounded. Thus the correct option is $\boxed{\mathrm{B}}$.Have a doubt or a different approach? Continue the mathematics discussion on Telegram.
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It is a daily mathematics MCQ designed to help students practise concepts relevant to postgraduate entrance and competitive mathematics examinations.
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